Disaster Management and Prevention Past Questions with Answers

 



 This post contains a question bank in the form of true/false, fill in the blanks and MCQ questions on the topic of Disaster Management and Prevention.


SECTION  I

Quiz 1

1. This is a process, phenomenon or human activity that may cause loss of life, injury or other health impacts, property damage, social and economic disruption or environmental degradation.

A.     Risk

B.     Calamity

C.     Hazard  

D.     Disaster

 

ANSWER:  C

2. This is the conditions determined by physical, social, economic, and environmental factors or processes which increase the susceptibility of an individual, a community, assets or systems to the impacts of hazards.

A.     Risk

B.     Capacity

C.     Vulnerability 

D.     Exposure

 

ANSWER:  C

3. This is a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society at any scale due to hazardous events interacting with conditions of exposure, vulnerability, and capacity, leading to one or more of the following: human, material, economic and environmental losses and impacts.

A.     Risk

B.     Hazard

C.     Vulnerability

D.     Disaster  

 

ANSWER:  D

5. This is the situation of people, infrastructure, housing, production capacities and other tangible human assets located in hazard-prone areas.

A.     Risk

B.     Disaster Risk

C.     Vulnerability

D.     Exposure  

 

ANSWER:  D

 

6. Which of the following hazards is not associated with volcanism?

A.     Debris Avalanche

B.     Tsunami

C.     All of the above

D.     None of the above 

 

ANSWER:  D

7. A people-centered early warning system includes all the following, EXCEPT:

A.     Risk Knowledge

B.     Preparedness  

C.     Response Capability

D.     Dissemination and Communication

 

ANSWER:  B

8. It refers to the systematic process of using administrative directives, organizations, and operational skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping capacities in order to lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of disaster

A.     Disaster Risk Reduction and Management  

B.     Dissaster Risk Reduction and Management

C.     Disaster Risk Reduction and Manegemant

D.     Disaster Risk Riduction and Management

 

ANSWER:  A

9. The pillars of prevention and mitigation includes all the following, EXCEPT:

A.     Monitoring and Warning Service  

B.     Prevention and Mitigation

C.     Preparedness

D.     Response

 

ANSWER:  A

10. It refers to the potential disaster losses, in lives, health status, livelihoods, assets and services, which could occur to a particular community or a society over some specified future time period.

A.     Exposure Risk

B.     Vulnerability Risk

C.     Hazard Risk

D.     Disaster Risk  

 

ANSWER:  D

11. It refers to the organization and management of resources and responsibilities for addressing all aspects of disasters and emergencies, in particular preparedness, response and initial recovery steps. Also referred to as emergency management.

A.     Risk Reduction Management

B.     Hazard Management

C.     Disaster Management  

D.     Risk Management

 

ANSWER:  C

 

12. First phase in disaster management cycle

A.     Recovery

B.     Preparedness

C.     Mitigation  

D.     Response

 

ANSWER:  C

 

13. Which one among the following is a biological hazard?

A.     Earthquake

B.     Storm

C.     Flood

D.     Covid-19  

 

ANSWER:  D

14. The susceptibility to damage or harm caused by a hazard

A.     Risk

B.     Vulnerability 

C.     Capacity

D.     Resilience

 

ANSWER:  B

 

15. Smallest unit of preparedness analysis

A.     Family  

B.     Individual

C.     Society

D.     Government

 

ANSWER:  A

16. A geophysicist who studies earthquakes and the mechanical characteristics of the Earth is called ___________.

A.     Seismologist  

B.     Geologist

C.     Geographer

D.     Archaeologist

 

ANSWER:  A

 

17. What causes Tsunami?

A.     Sudden vertical movement of the Earth

B.     Convergence of destructive plates in the ocean floor

C.     Explosive volcanic eruptions in the seas/oceans.

D.     All of the above 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

18. As the magnitude of natural disaster increases, their frequency of occcurrence

A.     decreases  

B.     increases

C.     remain same

D.     none

 

ANSWER:  A

19. SOP stands for

A.     Standard Office Protocol

B.     Standard Operating Protocol  

C.     Simple Operating Procedure

D.     Standard Operating Procedure 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

20. Richter scale is a ………….

A.     logarithmic scale 

B.     calculus scale

C.     volumetric scale

D.     area to vibration ratio scale

 

ANSWER:  A

 

21. What does the acronym ISDR stand for?

A.     International Significant Disaster Resources

B.     International Sustainable Development Report

C.     Intergovernmental Strategy for Developing Recreation

D.     International Strategy for Disaster Reduction 

 

ANSWER:  D

22. A clear concise document which outlines preventive and preparatory measures in the event of a disaster to minimize its effect is

A.     Disaster Management manual

B.     Disaster Management guide

C.     Disaster Management plan  

D.     Disaster Management Record

 

ANSWER:  C

 

23. A place where an earthquake originates is called the

A.     Epicenter

B.     Fault line

C.     Focus  

D.     Dip

 

ANSWER:  C

 

24.  which of the following is not part of geological disaster?

A.     Volcanoes

B.     Earthquakes

C.     Tsunami

D.     Sea Surge  

 

ANSWER:  D

 

25. The term disaster is derived from

A.     Latin word

B.     French word

C.     Japanese word

D.     Greek word 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

26. Which is a man made disaster

A.     Weapons 

B.     Flood

C.     Cyclone

D.     Volcana

 

ANSWER:  A

 

27. The act of being ready for something; the state of being prepared.

A.     Preparedness 

B.     Recovery

C.     Mitigation

D.     Disaster 

 

ANSWER:  A

 

28. A natural hazard occurs when natural physical processes become...

A.     dormant and inactive.

B.     extreme and unpredictable.

C.     scary!

D.     faster than usual.

 

ANSWER:  D

 

29. Who invented the Richter Scale?

A.     Charles Richter 

B.     Richard RIchter

C.     Robert Richter

D.     Charlene Richter

 

ANSWER:  A

 

30. What is the Richter Scale?

A.     A system of measuring the wind

B.     A system of measuring the depth of the ocean

C.     A system of measuring the height of volcanoes

D.     A system of measuring the strength of earthquakes 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

30. What is the device called that uses special weights and magnetic fields to measure the movement of the ground?

A.     Barometer

B.     Speedometer

C.     Seismograph 

D.     Telegraph

 

ANSWER:  C

 

31. What are giant ocean-going waves that are caused by an underwater earthquake or volcanic eruptions called?

A.     Tsunamis 

B.     Earthquake

C.     Tornadoes

D.     Hurricanes

 

ANSWER:  A

 

32. Where is a safe place to be during an earthquake?

A.     Outside

B.     On the roof of your house

C.     In a bathtub

D.     In a doorway

 

ANSWER:  D

 

33. What are some natural disasters?

A.     A war

B.     hurricanes, earthquakes, tornadoes, tsunamis, and rain

C.     hurricanes, earthquakes, tornadoes, tsunamis, and volcanoes 

D.     A very bad day

 

ANSWER:  C

 

34. What is a natural disaster?

A.     A red letter day

B.     A bad thing caused by a bad person

C.     An event that causes suffering brought on by nature

D.     An event that causes suffering brought on by an enemy

 

ANSWER:  C

 

35. The process of identifying hazard is…………

A.     Disaster management

B.     Disaster prevention

C.     Hazard mapping

D.     NADMO

 

ANSWER:  C

 

36.  Turkey experienced earthquake on …..

A.     7th Feb. 2023

B.     6th Feb. 2023

C.     5th Feb. 2023

D.     8th Feb. 2023

 

ANSWER:  B

 

37. How long did the Turkey earthquake last?

A.     1 hour

B.     1:30 minutes

C.     45 seconds

D.     30 seconds

 

ANSWER:  C

 

 

38. What was the magnitude of the Turkey earthquake?

A.     8.1

B.     7.8

C.     7.6

D.     5.7

 

ANSWER:  B

 

39. One of the following is mandated to handle disaster

A.     Ghana police service

B.     Fire service

C.     NADMO

D.     GES

 

ANSWER:  C

40. The following are international relief agency except?

A.     NADMO

B.     USAID

C.     WHO

D.     UNHCR

 

ANSWER:  A

 

QUIZ 2

 

1. Which of the following is a sudden, calamitous event, bringing great damage, loss, destruction, and devastation to life and property?

A.     disaster 

B.     hazard

C.     phenomenon

D.     risk

 

ANSWER:  A

 

2. A natural disaster can be a _____________ .

A.     phenomenon

B.     terrorism/Violence

C.     technological/industrial issues

D.     complex humanitarian emergencies

 

ANSWER:  A

 

3. All of the following are the effects of disasters EXCEPT ___________

A.     can destroy health infrastructure

B.     can cause an unexpected number of deaths

C.     can have adverse effects on the environment

D.     can cause the ability of every specie to reproduce

 

ANSWER:  D

 

4. It is also called as the Circum-Pacific belt, the zone of earthquakes surrounding the Pacific Ocean where about 99% of the world’s earthquake occurs.

A.     drought

B.     ring of fire  

C.     subsidence

D.     Bermuda Triangle

 

ANSWER:  B

 

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of man-caused hazard?

A.     mutiny

B.     genocide

C.     earthquake 

D.     bombs or explosions

 

ANSWER:  C

6. It is defined as the source of danger and something that may cause injury or harm. It is also the uncertain course of events in a country.

A.     disaster

B.     hazard

C.     risk

D.     phenomenon

 

ANSWER:  B

 

7. Which of the following category is a man-made hazard?

A.     storm surges

B.     flooded coastal areas

C.     Landslide on Mining sites

D.     Oil Spills from shipping boat  

 

ANSWER:  D

 

8. Which of the following is NOT included in the phases of disaster?

A.     recovery phase  

B.     planning phase  

C.     emergency phase

D.     preparedness phase

 

ANSWER:  B

 

9. A natural disaster where sea waves of local or distant origin that results from large-scale seafloor displacements associated with large earthquakes, major submarine slides, or exploring volcanic hazards is called _______

A.     earthquake

B.     flood

C.     tsunami  

D.     typhoon

 

ANSWER:  C

 

10. During the initial stage of a disaster, almost all surface means of transportation within the community are disrupted by broken bridges, roads, and streets that are rendered impassable by landslides or floods. The restricted mobility of vehicles makes rescue and other emergency operations doubly difficult. What is this impact/ effect of disaster?

A.     economic impact

B.     social and political impact

C.     damage to critical facilities

D.     disruption of transportation  

 

ANSWER:  D

 

11. Which of the following variables will NOT determine the elements in identifying disaster risk?

A.     coping capacity

B.     population explosion

C.     vulnerability to a hazard

D.     hazard (natural or man-made)

 

ANSWER:  B

 

12. There are many impacts of Disaster, on what impact it will fall if a person is suffering from post-traumatic stress syndrome?

A.     physical wellbeing impact

B.     mental wellbeing impact 

C.     social wellbeing impact

D.     none of the above

 

ANSWER:  B

13. Erica is outside the building. Which action should she do when she feels the ground is shaking?

A.     Stay away from trees, powerlines, post and concrete structures.

B.     Move away from steep slopes which may be affected by landslides.

C.     If near the shore and feel and earthquake, especially if it’s too strong, move quickly to higher grounds.

D.     All of the above. 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

14. The potential disaster losses in lives, health statuses, livelihoods, assets, and services, which could occur in a particular community or a society over some specified future time period is called _______________.

A.     disaster risk   

B.     disaster mitigation

C.     disaster prevention

D.     disaster preparedness

 

ANSWER:  A

 

15. Disaster has a great impact on which of the following aspect?

A.     Bacteria

B.     Human  

C.     Invention

D.     Technology

 

ANSWER:  B

16. One of the following is a local relief agency?

A.     UNHCR

B.     ECG

C.     NADMO

D.     GES

 

ANSWER:  C

17.  NADMO undertakes one of the following.

A.     Population census.

B.     Manages the economy

C.     Pulling

D.     Mitigate Disaster

 

ANSWER:  D

18. NADMO Collaborate with one of the following in disaster management

A.     District Assemblies

B.     Workers Union

C.     Transport union

D.     Banks

 

ANSWER:  A

19. One of the following is a preventive measure

A.     Working with NGO

B.     Working with red cross

C.     Identifying safe havens

D.     Working school

 

ANSWER:  C

20. Tidal wave is a form of disaster experienced along……

A.     Northern belt

B.     Coastal belt

C.     Middle belt

D.     Forest belt

 

ANSWER:  B

 

21. The Kejetia market extension was gutted by fire on ……..

       A. Tuesday, 14th March 2023

       B. Wednesday, 15th March 2023

       C.  Wednesday,  21st March 2023

       D. Tuesday, 15th March 2023

 

         ANSWER:  B

22.  How many Shops got destroy by the fire outbreak at the Kejetia Market ……………

    A . 24

    B. 29

    C. 30

    D. 33

 

     ANSWER:  B

 

 

QUIZ 3

 

1. An event, natural or manmade, sudden or progressive, which impacts with such severity that the affected community has to respond by taking exceptional measures.

A.     disaster 

B.     earthquake

C.     disruption

D.     calamity

 

ANSWER:  A

2. The country is an archipelago composed of more than ____islands.

A.     6,000

B.     7,500

C.     6,500

D.     7,000  

 

ANSWER:  D

3. The different disasters that Filipinos experience:

A.     disaster and volcanic eruption

B.     destruction and tsunami

C.     disaster and destruction

D.     tsunami and volcanic eruption 

 

ANSWER:  D

4. Choose an out-of-town contact your family or household will call or e-mail to check on each other should a disaster occur.

A.     Establish a meeting place.

B.     check on the school emergency plan of any school-age children you may have

C.     Assemble a disaster supplies kit.

D.     Create an emergency communications plan.  

 

ANSWER:  D

5. A predetermined meeting lace away from home will save time and minimize confusion should your home be affected or the area evacuated.

A.     Create an emergency communications place.

B.     Establish a meeting place.  

C.     Assemble a disaster supplies kit

D.     Check on the school emergency plan of any school age children you may have.

 

ANSWER:  D

6. Need to evacuate your home or are asked to "shelter in place", having some essential supplies on hand will make you and your family more comfortable.

A.     Create an emergency communications plan.

B.     Establish a meeting place.

C.     Assemble a disaster supplies kit  

D.     Check on the school emergency plan of any school-age children you may have.

 

ANSWER:  C

 

7. During times of emergency the school telephones may be overwhelmed with calls.

A.     True  

B.     False

 

ANSWER:  A

8. Remain calm and not be patient if disaster strikes.

A.     True

B.     False  

 

ANSWER:  B

9. If disaster strikes…..

A.     Clean-up may take many moths

B.     Establish a meeting place.

C.     Create an emergency communications plan

D.     Confine or secure your pets.  

 

ANSWER:  D

10. There can be no significant numbers of casualties and/or damage to buildings and the infrastructure.

A.     True  

B.     False

 

ANSWER:  A

 

11. Don't listen to your radio or television and follow the instructions of local emergency officials and keep these simple tips in mind.

A.     True

B.     False  

 

ANSWER:  B

 

12. The evacuation needs:

A.     Stay away from downed power lines.  

B.     Care for injuries to muscles, bones and joints.

C.     Call your family contact.

D.     Shelter-in-place fact sheet.

 

ANSWER:  A

13. Control bleeding………….

A.     Rest the injured part.

B.     Provide care for shock. 

C.     First Aid primer

D.     Do not give food or drink to the victim.

 

ANSWER:  B

 

14. Keep the victim from getting chilled and overheated.

A.     Control Bleeding.

B.     Care for shock.  

C.     Tend burns.

D.     Care for injuries to muscles, bones and joints.

 

ANSWER:  B

 

15. Tend burns……………..

A.     Cover the burn with dry, clean dressings or cloth.  

B.     Apply ice or cold pack to control swelling and reduce pain.

C.     Keep the victim from getting chilled and overheated.

D.     Cover the dressing with a roller bandage.

 

ANSWER:  A

 

16. in case of TYPHOONS

A.     Secure your home.  

B.     Follow official advisories and warnings.

C.     Immediately vacate and seek higher ground. Stay here until all signs of danger have passed.

D.     Check for fires and if there are any, have them extinguished.

 

ANSWER:  A

 

17. Food should always be covered to prevent collapsed.

A.     in case of TYPHOONS

B.     in case of TSUNAMIS

C.     in case of EARTHQUAKE

D.     in case of VULCANIC ERUPTIONS 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

18. Do not stay in low-lying and seashore areas after an earthquake.

A.     in case of TYPHOONS

B.     in case of TSUNAMIS 

C.     in case of EARTHQUAKES

D.     in case of VULCANIC ERUPTIONS

 

ANSWER:  B

 

19. What to have: Basic equipment for the needs of infants, the elderly and the disabled.

A.     True  

B.     False

 

ANSWER:  A

20. What to have: No non-perishable foodstuffs sufficient for three days.

A.     True

B.     False   

 

ANSWER:  B

 

21. What are the general effects of disaster?

A.     no injury 

B.     no Loss of life

C.     no national economic loss

D.     disruption of production  

 

ANSWER:  D

 

22. The measures, which enable government agencies, organizations, communities, and individuals to respond rapidly and effectively to instances of disaster.

A.     Disaster

B.     Typhoon

C.     Destruction

D.     Disaster preparedness  

 

ANSWER:  D

23. The effect of disasters and is varied according to different types of disasters.

A.     Prevention

B.     Disaster impact

C.     Response  

D.     Mitigation

 

ANSWER:  C

 

24. What are the Philippine approaches to disaster management?

A.     Prevent, Prepare, Response, Development

B.     Recovery, Development, Take adoptive action, take corrective action

C.     Take adoptive action, Prevent, Take corrective action, Prepare   

D.     loss of life, injury, damage, disaster

 

ANSWER:  C

 

25.  The programs intended to reduce the ill effects of disaster.

A.     Prevention

B.     Development

C.     Recovery

D.     Mitigation 

 

ANSWER:  D

26. The measures, which enable governments, organizations, communities and individuals to respond rapidly and effectively to disaster situations.

A.     Recovery

B.     Response

C.     Preparedness 

D.     Development

 

ANSWER:  C

 

27. The actions or programs designed to impede the occurrence of disaster or its harmful effects on communities and key installations.

A.     Prevention  

B.     Recovery

C.     Response

D.     Development

 

ANSWER:  A

28. The measures taken immediately prior to and following disaster's impact.

A.     Recovery

B.     Development

C.     Response

D.     Mitigation

 

ANSWER:  C

 

29. The process by which communities and organizations assist people in returning to their proper level of functioning following a disaster.

A.     Recovery  

B.     Response

C.     Prevention

D.     Preparedness

 

ANSWER:  C

 

30. The link between disaster-related activities and national development.

A.     Development  

B.     Mitigation

C.     Response

D.     Recovery

 

ANSWER:  A

31. What are the objectives of disaster management?

A.     Health services

B.     Public information

C.     Department of Agriculture

D.     To achieve rapid and durable recovery. 

 

ANSWER:  D

 

32. What are the disaster management policies?

A.     Advises the president of disaster preparedness.

B.     Self-reliance through self-help and mutual assistance.

C.     Damage assessment and needs analysis unit.

D.     Public information services

 

ANSWER:  B

 

33. What does the National Disaster Management Program contain?

A.     Research and development 

B.     Rescue, evaluation and engineering services

C.     Resource Unit

D.     Documentations of plans

 

ANSWER:  A

 

34. What are the suggestions to enhance community preparedness?

A.     Construction of disaster reduction facilities

B.     Application of counter-measures to cushion the impact of the calamity.   

C.     Utilizes the facilities and serves the office of civil defense discharging its functions.

D.     local leadership to take charge at their respective levels.

 

ANSWER:  B

 

35. What are the different tasks of the National Disaster Coordinating Council?

A.     Relief and Rehabilitation Service

B.     To reduce human personal sufferings and personal losses.

C.     Appreciation of the fact that any disaster can occur with or without warning.

D.     Establishes priorities in the allocation of funds, services, disaster equipment and relief supplies.

 

ANSWER:  D

 

36. One of the following is a natural disaster

A.     Deforestation

B.     Drought

C.     Car Accident

D.     Fire

 

ANSWER:  B

37. One of the following is a disaster management measure

A.     Fishing

B.     Fighting

C.     Recovery

D.     Advertise

 

ANSWER:  C

 

38. Prevention refer to ………

A.     Social Studies

B.     Actions made to stop

C.     Actions to promotes

D.     Building up

 

ANSWER:  B

Other International and Local community Disaster Management Multiple Choice Questions


SECTION II

1) In which Phase of Disaster damage Assessment is done?

A. Warning phase

B. Impact Phase

C. Rescue phase

D. Re-Habilitation Phase

 

Answer: D

 

2) In relation to Disaster Preparedness, which one of the following is more serious from response point of view?

A. 1st alert

B. 2nd alert

Answer: B

 

3) A physical situation which may cause human injury, damage to property or the environment, is called

A. Hazard

B. Risk

 

Answer: A

 

4) The likelihood of an undesired event occurring within a particular period or under specified circumstances is known as

A. Hazard

B. Risk

 

Answer: B

 

5) Which of the following is the main contributory cause for Pipeline Disasters in the world?

A. Third-party Activity

B. Corrosion

C. Mechanical failure

D. Operational failures

 

Answer: A

 

6) Root Cause Analysis of Disasters can be done through which of the following methods?

A. HAZOP

B. Checklist

C. Consequence Analysis

D. why—why

 

Answer: D

 

7) ‘Blow-Out’ is a Natural Disaster.

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

8) The principle which takes into account the precautions to be taken being on safer side and avoidance of taking undue risks from hazards, the damage potential of which is not yet fully known, is known as:

A. Guiding Principle

B. Risk Assessment Principle

C. Hazard Analysis Principle

D. Precautionary Principle

 

Answer: D

9) The agreement or understanding that has been reached among various nearby industries to help each other during emergency is called:

A. Memorandum of Agreement

B. Agreement of Mock—exercise

C. Industrial Charter

D. Mutual-Aid Agreement

 

Answer: D

10) How many Safety Integrity Levels exists?

A. 1

B. 2

C- 3

D. 4

 

Answer:  D

 

11) Which of the following SIL levels represents Catastrophic impacts of a Disaster?

A. SIL-1

B. SIL-2

C. SIL-3

D. SIL-4

 

Answer: D

 

12) “That could be the Primary and Secondary Protections for protection of a vessel against Over-pressure situation?

 

A. PSH and PSV

B. PSL and E88

C. LSL and BSD

D. F SL and FSV

 

Answer: A

 

 

13) In a Oil and Gas Drilling rig, an area within 4.5 m of the shale shaker in open air is considered as:

A. Zone-1

B. Zone-2

C. Zone-o

 

Answer: A

14) The area within 3 meter from the discharge nozzle of the relief valve is considered as:

A. Zone-o

B. Zone-2

C. Zone-1

 

Answer: B

15) Which of the following will be found on a Material Safety Data Sheet?

A. Spill and leak procedures

B. Health Hazard Information

C. Special protection Information

D. All of the above

 

Answer: D

16) Section 2 of an MSDS will have information about

A. Hazardous ingredirents

B. Fire and Explosion data

C. Reactivity data

D. Manufacturers’ data

 

Answer: A

 

17) In case of an emergency involving a chemical or product, an emergency telephone number can be found in which section of the MSDS?

 

A. Section 1

B. Section 2

C. Section 5

D. Section 8

 

Answer: A

 

18) The yellow portion of a NFPA diamond represents:

A. Health Hazard

B. Flammability Hazard

C. Reactivity Hazard

D. Special Hazard Information

 

Answer: B

 

19) The ill-health effect caused by one-time, sudden, high exposures is often called:

A. Chronic effect

B. Acute effect

C. Systematic effect

 

Answer: B

20) Monitoring the levels of exposure to toxic substances is medically done through analysis of body fluids e.g. blood, urine, expired air etc. The process is known as:

A. Condition monitoring

B. Biological conditioning

C. Exposure monitoring

D. Biological monitoring

 

Answer: D

21) The ratio of Amount of toxic chemical to the IDLH value of the chemical is called:

A. Fire Load

B. Toxic Load

C. Pollution Load

D. Toxicological Load

 

Answer: B

22) Which of the following steps of Toxic Risk Assessment exercise considers the possible routes of entry of chemicals into body and its reaction thereby?

A. 1st step

B. 2nd step

C. 3rd step

D. 4th step

 

Answer: C

 

23) About 2 ppm of Chlorine concentration in Air causes?

A. Irritation of eyes and nose

B. Irritation of throat

C. Intense cough 8: fits

D. Immediate death

 

Answer: A

 

24) If ‘Cash’ is a hazard, theft is the consequence, then if ‘electricity’ is the hazard, what could be the consequence?

 

A. Damage

B. Hearing loss

C. loss of water

D. shock

 

Answer: D

 

25) What is the purpose of hazard identification in Disaster preparedness?

A. to identify the probable causes of disasters

B. to identify the probable disaster scenarios

C. to quatify the consequences

D. to suggest mitigation measures

 

Answer: B

 

26) ‘Pareto Analysis’ is a:

 

A. Risk quantification technique

B. Risk analysis technique

C. Risk mitigation technique

D. Risk prioritization technique

 

Answer: D

 

2'7) ‘HAZID’ is done to carry out safety hazard identification, what is it known as which is used for identification of environmental issues?

 

A. ENVID

B. WBCSD

C. ENVDI

D. Sustainability

 

Answer: A

 

28) Atmospheric Stability Class D corresponds to which of the following weather conditions?

A. Slightly Stable

B. Stable

C. Highly unstable

D. Neutral

 

Answer: D

 

29) An estimated Risk of $2 \times 10"{-4}$ per year means:

 

A. One chance in 100 years

B. One chance in 10000 years

C. Two chances in 10000 years

D. Two chances in every 1000 years

 

Answer: C

 

30) “Then unacceptable risk is brought under the acceptability criteria through additional risk reduction measures, the identified risk is said to be within

 

A. As low as Regularly Possible (ALARP) zone

B. As low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) zone

C. As low as Reasonably Possible (ALARP) zone

D. As low as Rationally Probable (ALARP) zone

 

Answer: B

 

31) In Risk Analysis, Vulnerability Model represents:

A. How many persons will be effected due to exposure

B. How much area will be effected due to the event

C. How long the effect will last in the community

D. How probable that the community will be effected

 

Answer: A

 

32) Under damage criteria due to explosion pressure wave, 0.3 bar over pressure represents that:

A. 10% houses will get damaged

B. 90% houses will be seriously damaged

C. Windows of houses will be smashed

D. Glass of doors and windows will break

 

Answer: B

 

33) The catastrophic failure of a pressure vessel due to intense heating from a torch fire or a severe mechanical impact is commonly known as:

 

A. UCVCE

B. CE

C. BLEVE

D. Cascading effect

 

Answer: C

 

34) In Risk Assessment, 20/ 80 principle means:

 

A. 80% of total risk comes from 20% of cases

B. 20% of total risk originates from 80% of cases

 

Answer: A

 

35) Which one of the following has more damaging effect after a liquefied flammable gas release?

A. Early Ignition

B. Delayed Ignition

 

Answer: B

 

36) In Layer of Protection (LOP) Analysis, which of protection covers an ‘onsite Emergency Plan’?

A. 1st Layer

B. 3rd Layer

C. 5th Layer

D. 4th Layer

 

Answer: D

37) Which of the following is a hazard quantification method?

A. FMEA

B. Fault—tree

C. HAZOP

D. What-if Analysis

 

Answer: B

 

38) Cause-Consequence Analysis (CCA) is a combination of:

A. Fault-tree 8: Event tree Analyses

B. Fault-tree & HAZOP Analyses

C. MCA 8: Event tree Analyses

D. MCA 8: HAZOP Analyses

 

Answer: A

 

39) The roles and responsibilities identified for disaster responses under Disaster Management Plan is known as:

 

A. Incident Organogram

B. Disaster Response Structure

C. Incident Command System

 

Answer: C

 

40) The responsibility of press briefing during a disaster event normally rests on:

A. Incident Controller

B. Public relation Controller

C. Transport Controller

D. Security Controller

 

Answer: B

 

41) Whose responsibility normally it is to declare an Onsite Emergency in an industry?

A. Incident Controller

B. Site Main Controller

C. Key person (Fire and safety)

 

Answer: B

 

42) Under which section of the Factories Act, 1948 (amended to 1987), an occupier of a factory has to formulate an Onsite Emergency Plan?

 

A 41-B(4)

B. Section 13 — B(2)

C. Section 46 — B(5)

 

Answer: A

 

43) Indian Coast Guard has capabilities for responding to which tier of Oil spill contingencies?

A. Tier-I

B. Tier-II

C. Tier-III

 

Answer: B

 

44) Which of the following techniques are not used for Oil spill response?

A. Use of booms and Skimming

B. Use of dispersants

C. Burning

D. Bio-recovery

 

Answer: B

45) A hazardous chemical can be identified by which of the following numbers?

A. ID Number

B. NFPA Number

C. UN Number

D. Hazard index Number

 

Answer: C

46) Under various zones created around an incident site for effective response, which one normally used for command, control and support mobilization purposes?

A. Cold zone

B. Hot zones

C. Warm zone


Answer: A

47) Within which zone “Emergency Control Center” can be situated?

A. Hot zone

B. Support zone

C. Warm zone

 

Answer: B

 

48) ‘THERP’ study is related to:

 

A. Risk Perception

B. Safety Analysis

C. Human error

D. “Work study

 

Answer: C

 

49) Which of the following is not a technological factor used for Vulnerability assessment?

A. Process Safety

B. Individual difference

C. Communication failure

 

Answer: B

 

50) Which of the following is a human error in Disaster Management model?

A. Error of Omission

B. Typographical errors

C. Error of Commission

D. All of the above

 

Answer: D

 

51) Secondary fires are caused due to which of the following phenomenon?

A. Flash back

B. Burn-back

C. Fire spread

D. domino effect

 

Answer: B

 

52) What is the safe level of heat radiation (in Kw/m"2) for an average human being?

A- 1-75

B. 2.8

C. 6.4

D. 14.4

 

Answer: A

 

53) A Deep burn, characterized by destruction of all skin layers is termed as:

A. 1st degree bum

B. 2nd degree burn

C. 3rd degree burn

 

Answer: C

 

54) A Probit equation used for calculation of effects due to:

A. Flammability

B. Toxicity

C. both Flammability and toxicity

 

Answer: C

 

55) In Risk estimation, 3 F-N curve is referred to depict which of the following risks?

A. Individual Risk

B. Group Risk

C. Process Risk

 

Answer: B

 

56) The uncontrolled sudden violent escape of well fluids during oil and gas exploitation activities is known as:

 

A. Blow out

B. Bum out

C. explosion

D. Blast out

 

Answer: A

 

57) Which of the following classifications of blowout causes minor level of pollution?

A. Class I

B. Class II

C. Class IV

D. Class V

 

Answer: D

 

58) A normally directional well drilled to establish a direct communication with the well under blow out, is known as:

 

A. New well

B. Rehabilitatory well

C. Relief well

D. killing well

 

Answer: C

 

59) Lethality (Pr) can be calculated from Probit equation by:

 

A. Pr = a + b ln(c/t)

B. Pr = a + b ln(c.t)

C. Pr = a + b ln(c+t)

D. Pr = a + b ln(t/c)

 

Answer: B

 

60) Under which regulation the local authority is responsible for preparation of an offsite Emergency plan?

A. MSIHC Rules

B. Hazardous Chemical handling Rules

C. PMP Acts 8: Rules

 

Answer: A

 

61) Which of the following crisis groups are responsible for preparation of offsite response plan at local level?

 

A. State Crisis Group

B. Local Crisis Group

C. District Crisis Group

 

Answer: B

 

62) The purpose of Hazard maps is to identify and display the location of:

 

A. Hazard zones

B. Risk zones

C. Vulnerability zones

D. Decontamination zones

 

Answer: A

 

 

 

63) Immediate danger area following a toxic gas leak is based upon the substance’s:

A. IDLH

B. STEL

C. TLV

D. Ceiling value

 

Answer: A

 

64) The maximum injury causing distance following a toxic gas release will be dependent on the material’s:

A. IDLH

B. STEL

C. TLV

D. Ceiling value

 

Answer: B

 

65) Evacuation maps are made based on concentration contours of a toxic release in:

A. Downwind direction

B. Cross-wind direction

C. both the directions

 

Answer: C

 

66) In Uncertainty analysis, if the uncertainties are related to the chances of an incident happening, it is called

 

A. Aleatory uncertainty

B. Epistemic uncertainty

 

Answer: A

 

67) An area surrounding an incident site where public may be exposed to dangerous and life threatening concentrations of toxic materials is known as:

 

A. Initial isolation zone

B. Protective zone

C. Decontamination zone

 

Answer: A

 

68) An emergency action code designed to help the fire fighters to know readily the actions to be taken in case of fire or spillage of a particular hazardous substance is called:

 

A. HAZCHEM code

B. UN Number

C. CAS Number

 

Answer: A

69) How many Hazard Class Labels exist for different hazardous substances?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 7

D. 5

 

Answer: B

 

70) The written emergency information carries by the driver of all vehicles carrying hazardous substances is known as:

 

A. HAZCHEM

B. TREMCARD

C. Emergency Information pane

 

Answer: B

 

71) Emergency Information Panel contains:

A. Class Lebel

B. UN Number

C. HAZCH EM code

D. All the above

 

Answer: D

 

72) The vehicle equipped with rescue and personal protective equipment to be used for rescue purposes is known as:

 

A. Rescue vehicle

B. Rescue trolley vehicle

C. Rescue Tender

 

Answer: A or C

73) The Plan prepared for facilitating the prompt return to the normalcy and continuity of operation after a disaster is called:

A. Rescue Plan

B. Relief Plan

C. Recovery Plan

 

Answer: C

74) Which of the following is not the part of Disaster Mitigation Planning?

A. Emergency Communication

B. Disaster warning system

C. Risk and vulnerability analysis

D. Insurance requirements

 

Answer: A

75) The information required for the preparation of a Disaster Plan is called:

A. Strategic information

B. Tactical Information

C. Operational Information

D. Statutory information

 

Answer: A

 

76) One of the mostly used ways to communicate risk of any hazardous material is:

A. MSDS

B. Pareto chart

C. Emergency Information panel

 

Answer: A

 

77) Area where head count are usually taken after the evacuation of the affected area is known as:

A. Shelter area

B. Head-count area

C. Mustering area

D. Rescued area

 

Answer: C

 

78) Which of the following is an example of fixed hazard?

A. Toxic Gas release

B. Explosion

C. Pool fire

 

Answer: C

 

79) The technique utilized in analyzing disaster response preparedness in industry is called:

A. HAZOP

B. ER-HAZOP

C. “’hat-if

D. Disaster Mapping

 

Answer: B

 

80) The type of personal protection required when the greatest potential for exposure to hazards exists is:

A. Level-A

B. Level-B

C. Level-C

D. level-D

 

Answer: A

 

81) The first responders who usually experience strong emotional feelings while handling emergencies is said to be under:

A. Critical stress

B. Critical Incident Stress

C. Critical Incident Real]

 

Answer: B

 

82) The best way to audit the efficacy of the disaster preparedness is:

A. Walk-through survey

B. Table-top exercises

C. Mock drills at field

 

Answer: C

 

83) Which of the following situation arises to the human body while responding to emergencies?

A. Body rapidly produces Adrenaline

B. Heart beat increases

C. Temperature increases

D. All of the above

 

Answer: D

 

 

Risk Assessment AND hazard identification

 

1. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?

a) To minimize the effect of a consequence

b) For better risk management

c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins

d) To reduce probability of occurrence

 

Answer: c

Clarification: Hazard identification is the first step in risk assessment. The goal is to understand the concentration of toxins, spatial distribution and there movement.

 

2. The process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.

 

a) Hazard identification

b) Exposure assessment

c) Toxicity assessment

d) Risk characterization

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: Hazard identification traces the path of the toxins and also determines the likelihood of occurrence in humans.

 

3. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?

a) Land use

b) Contaminant levels

c) Affected population

d) Estimation of risk

 

Answer: D

 

Clarification: Estimation of risk is done at risk characterization whereas land use, contaminant level, affected population and biota data play a major role while identifying a hazard.

 

4. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.

a) True

b) False

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: Risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential source of harm.

 

5. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?

a) To estimate the risk

b) To calwlate carcinogenic exposure

c) To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site

d) For determination of remedial actions

 

Answer: C

 

Clarification: Site history provides precise information about the activities that had been carried on the area. Most of the instance contamination is due to past activities on site.

 

6. What is the main objective of risk assessment?

a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks

b) Remediation of contaminated sites

c) Hazard management

d) To know source of pollutants

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: Risk assessment helps to understand possible problems and provides alternatives as well as control measures to reduce the accident.

 

7. What is the first stage of risk assessment?

a) Exposure assessment

b) Hazard identification

c) Toxicity study

d) Risk characterization

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: Hazard identification is the first stage of risk assessment. It provides clear understanding about chemical contaminants, their concentration and distribution in environment.

 

8. An incident can be called hazardous only when?

a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems

b) Poses threat to surrounding

c) Monitoring is failed

d) Outburst of chemicals

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: An incident is called hazardous only when the contaminant poses threat to humans and ecological systems which may results in catastrophic.

 

9. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-handling activities may be planned.

a) False

b) True

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: The main goal of risk management is to reduce the threats from an activity so that harm to the surrounding is minimized.

 

10. Hazard identification mainly focus on

a) Chemical source and concentration

b) Chemical exposure

c) Chemical analysis

d) Chemical pathway

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: The main aim of hazard identification is to identify chemical source, concentration and its movement in environment.

 

 

 

Hazardous Waste Management Multiple Choice Questions on “Risk Management - Exposure Prediction”.

 

1. Which of the following is not a modelling approach for prediction of exposure in ecological risk assessment?

 

a) Static representation of the environment

b) Chemical discharge

c) Simplified dynamic approach

d) Site history

 

Answer: D

 

Clarification: Evaluating organism exposure in ecosystems is a difficult and can be carried out measuring or predicting concentrations in the environment. Current regulatory approaches favour modelling approach, they either use a static representation of the environment and of the chemical discharge or a simplified dynamic approach.

 

2. Exposure prediction depends upon of exposure.

a) Frequency and intensity

b) Data collection

c) Genetics

d) Agents

 

Answer: A

Clarification: Measurement or estimation of the exposure depends upon the intensity, frequency, and duration of human exposures to agents.

3. Exposure prediction is difficult and complex.

a) True

b) False

 

Answer: A

Clarification: The dimensions of the dose—response relationship usually prove particularly troublesome, primarily because estimates of dose are poor in most collections of epidemiological evidence. Even the quantification of exposure can be difficult.

4. Represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object.

a) Dose

1)) Response

c) Exposure

d) Concentration

 

Answer: C

 

5. What do the below hazard pictograph stands for?

a) Skin sensitizer

b) Flammable

c) Explosive

d) Dangerous

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) require pictographs on labels to alert users of the chemical hazards to which they may be exposed. Explanation marks stands for irritant (skin and eye), skin sensitizer, acute toxicity (harmful), narcotic effects, respiratory tract irritant, hazardous to Ozone layer.

 

6. What does the below hazard pictograph represent?

a) Toxicity

b) Acute toxicity

c) Oxidisers

d) Chronic toxicity

 

Answer: C

 

Clarification: Flame over circle symbol on a chemical label means that the substance is an oxidizer. Oxidizers may cause a fire by increasing the concentration of oxygen in the air.

 

7. What do the below hazard pictograph indicate?

a) Explosives

b) Flammable

c) Toxic

d) Dangerous

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: Indicates explosives with very insensitive substances which have a mass explosion hazard and the asterisk is replaced by the compatibility code.

 

8. Which of the following is not a function of hazard pictogram?

a) Identification of the product

b) Analysis

c) Danger or warning

d) Hazard statements

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: Precautionary statements are one of the key elements for the labelling of containers under the 61-18, along with an identification of the product, a signal word — either danger or waming hazard statements, indicating the nature and degree of the risks posed by the product and the identity of the supplier.

 

9. Identifies and quantifies pathway of exposure.

a) Exposure assessment

b) Risk assessment

c) Toxicity assessment

d) Risk assessment

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: Exposure assessment includes three steps which are characterization of the exposure setting (e.g., point source), identification of exposure pathways (e.g., groundwater) and quantification of the exposure (e.g., microgram/ L water).

 

10. Exposure effect is more in adults than that of children.

a) True

b) False

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: The sensitivity rate is more in infants, elderly, pregnant women, and those with chronic illness.

 

 

Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions on “Disaster Management and Planning”.

 

1. Disasters can be broadly termed as types.

a) 2

b) 4

e) 5

d) 3

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: Disasters can be accidental or intentional. Accidental disasters include natural disasters like tsunamis, hurricanes, floods, etc. Intentional are man-made disasters like, terrorism, bombing, etc.

 

Answer: A

 

2. The Melcom Disaster occurred in which date

a) June 3, 2018

b) November 7, 2018

c) June 7 , 2012

d) November 7, 2012

 

Answer: D

 

3. Turkey Syria Earthquake occurred on;

 

a) 6th February 2023

b) 16th February 2023

c) 7th February 2023

d) 9th February 2023

 

Answer: A

 

4. To measure flood variability, is used widely.

a) FFMI

b) F1

c) FMI

d) FFI

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: FFMI stands for Flash Flood Magnitude Index. It is the standard deviation of logarithms to the base of 10 of annual maximum series.

 

5. Disaster management deals with situation that occurs after the disaster.

a) True

b) False

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: Disaster management is a broad term and it deals with a situation prior to, during and after the occurrence of a disaster.

 

6. How many elements of disaster management are there?

a) 8

b) 7

c) 4

d) 6

 

Answer: D

 

Clarification: There are six distinct sets of activities. These include risk management, loss management, control of events, equity of assistance, resource management and impact reduction.

 

7. Which of the below is an example of slow-onset disaster?

a) Earthquake

b) Tsunami

c) Cyclone

d) Draught

 

Answer: D

 

Clarification: Disasters can also be classified as rapid-onset and slow-onset. It is based on how long they last. Rapid-onset disasters are Earthquake, Tsunami and Cyclone.

 

8. How many phases of disaster response are there?

a) 5

b) 4

c) 3

d) 2

 

Answer: A

 

8. How many phases of disaster response are there?

a) 5

b) 4

c) 3

d) 2

 

Answer: A

 

Clarification: These are the preparatory phase, warning phase, emergency phase, rehabilitation phase and reconstruction phase.

 

9. The first step in preparedness planning is:

 

a) Analysis of data collected

b) Determination of objectives

c) Development of implementing device

d) Determination of strategy

 

Answer: B

 

Clarification: There are six steps in preparedness planning for emergency response. The first step is to determine the objectives to be met within each affected sector.

 

10. Tsunami detectors are placed in sea at ____________kms from shore.

a) 25

 

b) 100

 

c) 50

 

d) 85

 

Answer: C

Clarification: Coastal tidal gauges can detect tsunami closer to shore. It is placed at 50kms in the sea from shore. They are linked to land by submarine cables and give warning in time.

 

 

SECTION III

 

Brief information on some recent Disaster in Ghana, Africa and the world.

 

1. Brief on JUNE 3 2015 Disaster in Ghana

On June 3, 2015, an explosion and a fire occurred at a petrol station in Ghana's capital city Accra, killing over 250 people.

 

2. Disaster Relief Agencies

 a) USAID – United State Agency for International Development.

  Duties: Assist projects that conserve and protect threatened land, water, forests, and wildlife.

 

   b. UNHCR – United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.

Duties: To safeguard the rights and well-being of refugees

 

c) Red Cross – International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC)

Duties:

To ensure humanitarian protection and assistance for victims of war and armed violence.

They work to save life and build community.

 

d) WFP – World Food Programme.

Duties:

* Provide food assistance world wide

* They deliver food assistance in emergencies and working with communities to improve nutrition and build resilience.

* They get food to where it is needed, saving the lives of victims of war, Civil conflict and natural disasters.

 

 e) NADMO - National Disaster Management Organization

The National Disaster Management Organization (NADMO) under the Ministry of the Interior was established by ACT 517 of 1996 with the responsibility.

Duties:

To manage disaster by coordinating the resources of government institutions and non- government agency, develop the capacity of voluntary community – based organization to respond effectively to emergencies an improve livelihood through social mobilization, employment generation and poverty reduction projects.

 

3. Brief on Melcom Disaster in Ghana

On November 7, 2012, a six-storey building at Achimota rented by Melcom collapsed, killing 13 people and injuring 81 others.

 

4. Brief on Appeate Disaster

On 20 January 2022, a large blast occurred in an area at Apeate community, near the city of Bogoso about 300km (180 miles).

 

What caused the Appiatse explosion?


On 20 January 2022, a large blast occurred in an area at Apeate community, near the city of Bogoso about 300km (180 miles) west of the capital of Ghana, Accra. The explosion occurred when a motorcycle went under a truck carrying explosives that was route to the gold mine at Bogoso. After the blasts, people in the community rushed down to the scene when a second blast occurred few minutes later. This resulted in the destruction of dozens of buildings.

As of 26 January, a total of 3,300 people have been affected by the event, 17 people had been confirmed dead, and some 59 people injured. Reports from the National Disaster Management Organization (NADMO) indicated that 500 buildings have been destroyed by the blasts and approximately 1,500 people are now homeless. The explosion blew-off major roads in the area, with many commuters getting stranded due to the situation.

The Prestea Huni Valley Municipal Assembly has set up a relief center at the Catholic Church Parish Hall in Bogoso which is hosting the displaced people, and the Government through the Municipal Chief Executive of Prestea Huni Valley Municipal Assembly has issued a statement highlighting the need for assistance including temporary shelter, food items and medical needs

 

5. Brief on Ebola Disaster

 

The 2014-2016 Ebola outbreak in West Africa began in a rural setting of southeastern Guinea, spread to urban areas and across borders within weeks, and became a global epidemic within months.

 

6. Brief on Covid-19 Disaster

 

The COVID-19 pandemic, also known as the coronavirus pandemic, is an ongoing global pandemic of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). The novel virus was first identified in an outbreak in the Chinese city of Wuhan in December 2019. Attempts to contain it there failed, allowing the virus to spread to other areas of Asia and later worldwide. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared the outbreak a public health emergency of international concern on 30 January 2020, and a pandemic on 11 March 2020. As of 6 March 2023, the pandemic had caused more than 676 million cases and 6.87 million confirmed deaths, making it one of the deadliest in history.

In Africa, more than 90,0000 cases have been reported with about 3,000 deaths. South Africa has recorded the highest number of cases with 23,615 cases and 481 deaths. Ghana confirmed its first cases of COVID-19 on 12th March 2020 and had as at 25 May 2020 recorded over 7,000 cases with 34 deaths.

In Ghana, the first official cases of COVID-19 were reported on 12 March 2020. The Health Minister announced the nation's first two confirmed cases in Accra. The two cases were identified as people who had returned to the country from Norway and Turkey. These imported cases initiated the first contact tracing process in Ghana, helping detect several dozens of cases in a short period of time.

 

 

7. Brief on Keta tidal wave

 

Date: 6th Saturday, November 2021

People Displaced:  700 homeless

 

8. Brief on Turkey – Syira Disaster

 

On 6 February 2023, at 04:17 TRT (01:17 UTC),  M 7.8 earthquake struck southern and central Turkey and northern and western Syria. The epicenter was 37 km (23 mi) west–northwest of Gaziantep. The earthquake had a maximum Mercalli intensity of XI (Extreme). It was followed by  M 7.7 earthquake at 13:24.

 

Deaths

At least 52,000 people

Non-fatal injuries

At least 118,626 people

Displaced

At least 2.4M people

People affected

At least 24M people

Buildings destroyed

At least 200,089

Property damage

US$55–90B

Magnitude

7.8

Last long

45 Seconds

 

DONATIONS TO TURKEY – SYRIA

 

USAID –   $ 85 million

WORLD BANK –  $1.78 million

FRANCE – $ 12.9 million

Germany - 26 million

Canada – $ 10 million



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